So now begins the real agony.
We can say as Chalcedonians and non-Chalcedonians that the content of our Christology is substantially the same.
But now the evclesiological implications are manifold.
1. Was any side ever the fullness of Christ's Church after Chalcedon. If so, is it possible for Christ's Church to wrongly attribute heresy not just to individuals, but to saints?
2. If neither side was the fullness of Christ's Church, did Christ's Church cease to exist visibly?
3. Can we say that both sides were equally the Church, but that after the schism the capacity to infallibly determine doctrine independent of the other was stalled? Was either side entitled to hold an ecumenical council without the other?
4. Can we say both sides were the one Orthodox Church of Christ, that the inward unity was kept, the outward unity of administration damaged, and that christ worked in both to preserve his one truth, although the administrative structures wrongly accused the other side of holding heretical opinions?
5. If truth is really substantially identical between the two families of Orthodoxy, how do we explain mutually recognized saints who wrote against one side or the other? For example, St. Symeon the Stylite was pro-Chalcedonian, St. Shenoude was anti-Chalcedonian and both were contemporaries.
6. Many of the Eastern Orthodox have this mentality that the monastics are an infallible rule of faith for determining tradition, so they keep their eyes on Athos. Unfortunately they seem oblivious to the fact that all of Egypt kept their eyes on Scetis, Jerusalem on the Jordan Wilderness, and Antioch on the Syrian Monastics led by Barsauma, and they all rejected Chalcedon. So WHAT is the particular significance of relying on monastics for theology and Ecclesiology when from THEIR perspective it "didn't work" for massive sectors of the Church?
In short how can we have unity without compromising the visible unity of the Church and even imputing blasphemy to her (that the Church can officially and wrongly condemn saints as heretics)? Isn't the Church supposed to be protected from this kind of mistake?
Comments
http://www.canadox.ca/?p=53
One of the links he referred to is dead, but I found another link that may help. It is part of Fr. Laurent's book "His Broken Body":
http://s33939bc9149089cf.jimcontent.com/download/version/1316836222/module/5283793850/name/Article on Ecclesiology, Apostolic and Petrine Succession, Primacy, etc.pdf
The idea is this. The word "Catholic" does not necessarily mean "universal" or "ecumenical." It means "according to the whole". The way it is summarized is this. If you receive the Eucharist in various sizes and times, you still receive the fullness of Jesus Christ, humanity and divinity, in you. Our Lord did not partition or multiply Himself; He is the same eternal Lord we eat while He is seated at the right hand of Glory in the uncreated Holy of Holies, and we are transported into the Kingdom as many times as necessary for our spiritual growth. Therefore, every single parish with a valid Eucharist is "the Catholic Church" under proper episcopal authority, no matter how big or small the parish is, no matter the time or circumstance. If you truly believe the Eucharist is eternal, above time and space, one can extend that in a mystery to ecclesiology.
Local parishes and patriarchates have schismed throughout history, big or small, in short or relatively longer times. While on earth 1500-year schism of two enormous families is a difficult burden, but is it a burden in the realm of eternity?
I hope those links will help answer your question. The second one is 81 pages but well worth the read.
God bless.