It is true that the Lord's prayer differs between Protestants and Catholics. It also differs slightly compared to Orthodox. My question is can someone explain the evolution of the biblical Lord's prayer into the one we now use today in the Coptic Orthodox Church. I've done quite a bit of research on this matter and I can't seem to find something explaining how "In Christ Jesus our Lord" came into the picture. Could anyone shed some light on this?
Thanks,
FirstChurch
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