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Help me with this question, please.

PaNo5PaNo5
edited September 2009 in Faith Issues
Hey brothers and sisters,

I wanted just to ask for a question it bothers me about the New Testament.

In Mark 6:8 "and He instructed them that they should take nothing for their journey, except a mere staff; no bread, no bag, no money in their belt."

Matthew 10:9-10 "Do not acquire gold, or silver, or copper for your money belts, 10or a bag for your journey, or even two tunics, or sandals, or a staff; for the worker is worthy of his support."

Luke 9:1 "And He said to them, "Take nothing for your journey, neither a staff, nor a bag, nor bread, nor money; and do not even have two tunics apiece.

So my question is: Did Jesus actually mention the staff? And why is there this difference?
I think it all matter of what verb they used in Ancient Greek since there are many verbs similar to each other.

May God bless you all and thanks in advance.

Comments

  • [Deleted User]
    The user and all related content has been deleted.
  • PaNo5PaNo5
    Yeah, but why in Mark's gospel it is mentioned to take a staff and in the other 2 it is mentioned to NOT even take a staff?
  • SaintaMaria05SaintaMaria05
    In Mark 6:8-9, Jesus says, "Take nothing for the journey except a staff—no bag, no bread, no copper in their money belts—but to wear sandals, and not to put on two tunics." In Matthew 10:9-10, He instructs, "Provide neither gold nor silver nor copper in your money belts, nor bag for your journey, nor two tunics, nor sandals, nor staffs." He is really talking about two different things. In Matthew's account, Jesus does not forbid wearing sandals or carrying a staff, but only forbids their providing themselves with more—getting extra ones. Instead of being concerned when their current trappings wore out, they should trust God to supply their need and go just as they were. I hope this helped :)

    Please Pray for me
  • peterfarringtonpeterfarrington
    We should remember that the Gospels are eye-witness accounts of what was seen and heard. We might expect that there are minor discrepancies. These do not detract from the message of the Gospel, but rather show clearly that the Gospels were not constructed later by people who did not know Christ at all, but from the remembrances of those who were actually there, or heard from those who were actually there.

    As Orthodox Christians we do not need to prove that there are no discrepancies. Our faith does not hinge on whether or not the Apostles should take a staff or not. Indeed the Gospels are nothing like the Quran or the Book of Mormon. They are not delivered from heaven, but are the witness of God's communication with men through men.

    It is very good to see that people are studying the Bible. May God bless your studies.

    Father Peter
  • PaNo5PaNo5
    Thanks guys for all your replies and thanks Father peter.

    I read it again in ancient greek as it was written from the evangelists themselves and I found that they used 2 verbs: Κταομαι and Αιρω. It's actually there the fact I wanted. I'll ask my Ancient Greek teacher and gonna give you full explanations about that.

    Of course we don't have to prove that there are no discrepancies, but I'm searching for an answer so if a guy asks me I could answer him.

    May God bless us all. Thank you all.
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